EST II PHYSICS HARD PRACTICE MOCK EXAM — 2026 SPECIFICATIONS 60 Questions | 60 Minutes

 

EST II PHYSICS

HARD PRACTICE MOCK EXAM — 2026 SPECIFICATIONS
60 Questions   |   60 Minutes

Directions:

Choose the best answer for each question. Each question has five answer choices: A, B, C, D, and E.

This practice test emphasizes calculation, application, conceptual reasoning, and interpretation of physical situations.

No laboratory-experiment questions are included.

Use the following approximate values when needed:
g = 10 m/s²    c = 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s    k = 9.0 × 10⁹ N·m²/C²
μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A

MECHANICS

1. A car travels 120 m east and then 50 m west in 20 s. What are the magnitude of its average velocity and its average speed, respectively?

A) 3.5 m/s and 6.0 m/s

B) 3.5 m/s and 8.5 m/s

C) 6.0 m/s and 3.5 m/s

D) 8.5 m/s and 3.5 m/s

E) 6.0 m/s and 8.5 m/s

Answer: A) 3.5 m/s and 8.5 m/s

2. An object starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at 4 m/s² for 5 seconds. How far does it travel during this time?

A) 20 m

B) 40 m

C) 50 m

D) 80 m

E) 100 m

Answer: C) 50 m

3. A ball is thrown vertically upward with an initial speed of 30 m/s. Ignoring air resistance, what is its maximum height above the release point?

A) 30 m

B) 40 m

C) 45 m

D) 60 m

E) 90 m

Answer: C) 45 m

4. A projectile is launched horizontally from a cliff. Which statement about its horizontal and vertical accelerations is correct, ignoring air resistance?

A) Both accelerations are zero.

B) Horizontal acceleration is g and vertical acceleration is zero.

C) Horizontal acceleration is zero and vertical acceleration is g downward.

D) Both accelerations are g.

E) The horizontal acceleration increases as the projectile falls.

Answer: C) Horizontal acceleration is zero and vertical acceleration is g downward.

5. A 5 kg object is acted upon by a net force of 20 N. What is its acceleration?

A) 0.25 m/s²

B) 2 m/s²

C) 4 m/s²

D) 25 m/s²

E) 100 m/s²

Answer: C) 4 m/s²

6. A box rests on a horizontal floor. The box is not moving even though a horizontal force is applied to it. Which statement must be true?

A) There is no friction.

B) The applied force is greater than the friction force.

C) Static friction balances the applied force.

D) The normal force is zero.

E) The weight of the box is zero.

Answer: C) Static friction balances the applied force.

7. A 2 kg object moves at 6 m/s. What is its kinetic energy?

A) 6 J

B) 12 J

C) 18 J

D) 36 J

E) 72 J

Answer: D) 36 J

8. An object of mass 4 kg is lifted vertically through a height of 5 m. How much gravitational potential energy does it gain?

A) 20 J

B) 50 J

C) 100 J

D) 200 J

E) 400 J

Answer: D) 200 J

9. A machine receives 500 J of energy and produces 350 J of useful output energy. What is its efficiency?

A) 30%

B) 50%

C) 65%

D) 70%

E) 85%

Answer: D) 70%

10. A force of 40 N acts in the direction of motion of an object over a distance of 8 m. How much work is done?

A) 5 J

B) 32 J

C) 48 J

D) 320 J

E) 400 J

Answer: D) 320 J

11. A motor performs 12,000 J of work in 20 seconds. What is its power?

A) 60 W

B) 240 W

C) 600 W

D) 6,000 W

E) 240,000 W

Answer: C) 600 W

12. A 2 kg object moving at 10 m/s collides with a stationary 3 kg object. If they stick together, what is their common velocity immediately after the collision?

A) 2 m/s

B) 4 m/s

C) 5 m/s

D) 6 m/s

E) 10 m/s

Answer: B) 4 m/s

13. A force of 50 N acts on an object for 0.2 s. What impulse does the force provide?

A) 0.01 N·s

B) 2.5 N·s

C) 10 N·s

D) 25 N·s

E) 250 N·s

Answer: C) 10 N·s

14. A car moves around a circular track at constant speed. Which statement is correct?

A) Its velocity is constant.

B) Its acceleration is zero.

C) Its velocity changes because its direction changes.

D) No force acts on the car.

E) Its kinetic energy continually decreases.

Answer: C) Its velocity changes because its direction changes.

15. A 1,000 kg car travels at 20 m/s around a circular path of radius 100 m. What is the magnitude of the centripetal force?

A) 400 N

B) 2,000 N

C) 4,000 N

D) 20,000 N

E) 40,000 N

Answer: E) 40,000 N

16. If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational force between them becomes:

A) Four times greater.

B) Twice as great.

C) Unchanged.

D) One-half as great.

E) One-fourth as great.

Answer: E) One-fourth as great.

17. A satellite moves in a circular orbit around Earth. Which force provides the centripetal force?

A) Friction

B) Air resistance

C) Earth's gravitational force

D) The satellite's engine continuously pushing inward

E) Earth's magnetic force

Answer: C) Earth's gravitational force

18. A pendulum is moved from its equilibrium position and released. At the equilibrium position, which quantity is greatest for ideal simple harmonic motion?

A) Displacement

B) Potential energy

C) Speed

D) Restoring force

E) Acceleration

Answer: C) Speed

19. A 10 kg object is pulled horizontally by a 50 N force while friction acts in the opposite direction with a force of 20 N. What is the object's acceleration?

A) 2 m/s²

B) 3 m/s²

C) 5 m/s²

D) 7 m/s²

E) 30 m/s²

Answer: B) 3 m/s²

20. A ball is dropped from rest. Ignoring air resistance, which statement is correct during its fall?

A) Its acceleration decreases to zero.

B) Its kinetic energy decreases.

C) Its gravitational potential energy increases.

D) Its speed increases while its gravitational potential energy decreases.

E) Its total mechanical energy continuously decreases.

Answer: D) Its speed increases while its gravitational potential energy decreases.

ELECTRICITY AND ELECTROMAGNETISM

21. Two point charges are separated by a distance r and exert a force F on each other. If the distance becomes 2r, the new force is:

A) 4F

B) 2F

C) F

D) F/2

E) F/4

Answer: E) F/4

22. A positive charge is released in an electric field. In which direction does the electric force initially act?

A) Opposite to the electric field.

B) In the direction of the electric field.

C) Perpendicular to the electric field.

D) Always toward another positive charge.

E) Always downward.

Answer: B) In the direction of the electric field.

23. A negative charge is placed in a uniform electric field. The electric force on the charge acts:

A) In the direction of the electric field.

B) Opposite to the electric field.

C) At 45° to the electric field.

D) In no direction.

E) Only if the charge is moving.

Answer: B) Opposite to the electric field.

24. A 6 Ω resistor is connected to a 12 V battery. What current flows through the resistor?

A) 0.5 A

B) 2 A

C) 6 A

D) 18 A

E) 72 A

Answer: B) 2 A

25. Two resistors of 4 Ω and 8 Ω are connected in series. What is their equivalent resistance?

A) 2.67 Ω

B) 4 Ω

C) 8 Ω

D) 12 Ω

E) 32 Ω

Answer: D) 12 Ω

26. Two resistors of 6 Ω and 3 Ω are connected in parallel. What is their equivalent resistance?

A) 1 Ω

B) 2 Ω

C) 3 Ω

D) 6 Ω

E) 9 Ω

Answer: B) 2 Ω

27. Three identical resistors are connected in parallel. If each has resistance R, the equivalent resistance is:

A) 3R

B) R

C) 2R

D) R/2

E) R/3

Answer: E) R/3

28. A device operates at 20 V and draws a current of 3 A. What is its electrical power?

A) 6.7 W

B) 17 W

C) 23 W

D) 60 W

E) 120 W

Answer: D) 60 W

29. A 100 W lamp operates for 5 minutes. How much electrical energy does it consume?

A) 500 J

B) 1,000 J

C) 3,000 J

D) 30,000 J

E) 300,000 J

Answer: D) 30,000 J

30. A capacitor has capacitance 4 μF and is connected to a 10 V source. What charge is stored?

A) 0.4 μC

B) 4 μC

C) 40 μC

D) 400 μC

E) 4,000 μC

Answer: C) 40 μC

31. A capacitor is charged and then disconnected from the battery. If its capacitance remains unchanged, which quantity remains constant?

A) Voltage only

B) Charge

C) Current

D) Resistance

E) Electric power

Answer: B) Charge

32. A straight wire carries a current of 4 A. At a point twice as far from the wire, the magnetic field becomes:

A) Four times greater.

B) Twice as great.

C) Unchanged.

D) Half as great.

E) One-fourth as great.

Answer: D) Half as great.

33. A charged particle moves parallel to a uniform magnetic field. What magnetic force acts on the particle?

A) Maximum force

B) Zero

C) A force equal to its weight

D) A force equal to its electric charge

E) A force that always points along its motion

Answer: B) Zero

34. According to Faraday's law, an induced electromotive force is produced when:

A) A conductor has zero resistance.

B) Magnetic flux through a circuit changes.

C) A circuit contains only resistors.

D) A battery is disconnected from every circuit.

E) Temperature remains constant.

Answer: B) Magnetic flux through a circuit changes.

35. Lenz's law states that the induced current acts in a direction that:

A) Always increases the change in magnetic flux.

B) Opposes the change that produces it.

C) Always points north.

D) Always produces maximum current.

E) Is independent of magnetic flux.

Answer: B) Opposes the change that produces it.

WAVES AND PARTICLE NATURE OF LIGHT

36. A wave has a frequency of 5 Hz and a wavelength of 2 m. What is its speed?

A) 0.4 m/s

B) 2.5 m/s

C) 7 m/s

D) 10 m/s

E) 20 m/s

Answer: D) 10 m/s

37. A wave travels at 300 m/s and has a frequency of 60 Hz. What is its wavelength?

A) 0.2 m

B) 5 m

C) 18 m

D) 240 m

E) 360 m

Answer: B) 5 m

38. Two waves meet in phase at a point. If each has amplitude 3 cm, what is the resulting amplitude at that point?

A) 0 cm

B) 1.5 cm

C) 3 cm

D) 6 cm

E) 9 cm

Answer: D) 6 cm

39. Two waves meet exactly out of phase and have equal amplitudes. What is the resulting amplitude?

A) Zero

B) Equal to one original amplitude

C) Twice one original amplitude

D) Four times one original amplitude

E) It cannot be determined.

Answer: A) Zero

40. A sound source moves toward a stationary observer. The observer detects a higher frequency than the source emits. This phenomenon is called:

A) Diffraction

B) Polarization

C) Doppler effect

D) Total internal reflection

E) Dispersion

Answer: C) Doppler effect

41. Light travels from air into glass. Which statement is correct?

A) Its frequency increases.

B) Its frequency decreases.

C) Its speed decreases and its wavelength decreases.

D) Its speed increases and its wavelength increases.

E) Its frequency and speed both remain unchanged.

Answer: C) Its speed decreases and its wavelength decreases.

42. Total internal reflection can occur when light travels:

A) From a lower refractive index to a higher one at any angle.

B) From a higher refractive index to a lower one with an incidence angle greater than the critical angle.

C) From air into glass at zero incidence angle.

D) Only through vacuum.

E) Only when the incidence angle is smaller than the critical angle.

Answer: B) From a higher refractive index to a lower one with an incidence angle greater than the critical angle.

43. A converging lens has a focal length of 10 cm. An object is placed 30 cm from the lens. Approximately where is the image formed?

A) 5 cm

B) 10 cm

C) 15 cm

D) 20 cm

E) 30 cm

Answer: C) 15 cm

44. Which observation provides evidence for the particle nature of light?

A) Reflection

B) Refraction

C) Diffraction

D) Photoelectric effect

E) Interference

Answer: D) Photoelectric effect

45. In the photoelectric effect, increasing the frequency of incident light above the threshold frequency generally causes emitted electrons to have:

A) Lower maximum kinetic energy.

B) Higher maximum kinetic energy.

C) Zero charge.

D) Greater mass.

E) No change in energy.

Answer: B) Higher maximum kinetic energy.

THERMODYNAMICS

46. A 2 kg sample of water absorbs 8,400 J of heat. If its temperature rises by 1°C, what is its specific heat capacity?

A) 420 J/kg°C

B) 2,100 J/kg°C

C) 4,200 J/kg°C

D) 8,400 J/kg°C

E) 16,800 J/kg°C

Answer: C) 4,200 J/kg°C

47. How much energy is required to melt 0.5 kg of ice if the latent heat of fusion is 3.34 × 10⁵ J/kg?

A) 1.67 × 10⁴ J

B) 1.67 × 10⁵ J

C) 3.34 × 10⁵ J

D) 6.68 × 10⁵ J

E) 1.67 × 10⁶ J

Answer: B) 1.67 × 10⁵ J

48. During the melting of a pure substance at constant pressure, the temperature remains constant because the supplied energy is primarily used to:

A) Increase the mass of the substance.

B) Increase particle separation and change the phase.

C) Increase gravitational potential energy.

D) Decrease internal energy.

E) Stop all molecular motion.

Answer: B) Increase particle separation and change the phase.

49. A gas is compressed while its temperature is kept constant. If its volume is reduced to one-half, its pressure becomes:

A) One-fourth as large.

B) One-half as large.

C) Unchanged.

D) Twice as large.

E) Four times as large.

Answer: D) Twice as large.

50. A heat engine absorbs 1,000 J of energy and performs 250 J of useful work. What is its efficiency?

A) 10%

B) 20%

C) 25%

D) 40%

E) 75%

Answer: C) 25%

MODERN PHYSICS

51. Which statement about a photon is correct?

A) It has rest mass greater than zero.

B) It travels at the speed of light in vacuum.

C) It can exist only inside an atom.

D) It always has the same energy.

E) It cannot transfer energy.

Answer: B) It travels at the speed of light in vacuum.

52. The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its:

A) Wavelength

B) Frequency

C) Mass of the source

D) Speed in vacuum squared

E) Temperature of the source only

Answer: B) Frequency

53. An electron in a hydrogen atom moves from a higher energy level to a lower energy level. What happens?

A) A photon is absorbed.

B) A photon is emitted.

C) The electron disappears.

D) The nucleus loses a proton.

E) The atom necessarily becomes ionized.

Answer: B) A photon is emitted.

54. A radioactive substance has a half-life of 4 hours. If the initial amount is 800 g, how much remains after 12 hours?

A) 50 g

B) 100 g

C) 200 g

D) 400 g

E) 600 g

Answer: B) 100 g

55. Which particle is emitted during alpha decay?

A) An electron

B) A photon

C) A helium nucleus

D) A neutron only

E) A proton only

Answer: C) A helium nucleus

56. During beta-minus decay, a neutron in the nucleus changes into:

A) A proton and an electron.

B) A proton and a photon only.

C) Two neutrons.

D) An alpha particle.

E) A proton and an alpha particle.

Answer: A) A proton and an electron.

57. Which nuclear process releases energy by combining light nuclei into a heavier nucleus?

A) Fission

B) Fusion

C) Ionization

D) Photoelectric emission

E) Beta decay

Answer: B) Fusion

58. According to special relativity, as an object's speed approaches the speed of light, which statement is correct?

A) Its relativistic effects become increasingly significant.

B) Its mass becomes exactly zero.

C) Time must stop for every observer.

D) Light can be overtaken by the object.

E) The laws of physics cease to apply.

Answer: A) Its relativistic effects become increasingly significant.

GENERAL PHYSICS — REASONING AND APPLICATION

59. A student compares two objects. Object A has twice the mass of Object B, but both move at the same speed. Which statement is correct?

A) Object A has twice the kinetic energy of Object B.

B) Object A has four times the kinetic energy of Object B.

C) Object A has half the kinetic energy of Object B.

D) Both have the same kinetic energy.

E) Kinetic energy does not depend on mass.

Answer: A) Object A has twice the kinetic energy of Object B.

60. A student considers the following statements about a moving object:

I. Its speed can be constant while its velocity changes.
II. Its acceleration can be zero while its velocity is constant.
III. If its acceleration is nonzero, its velocity must be changing.

Which combination is correct?

A) I only

B) II only

C) I and II only

D) II and III only

E) I, II, and III

Answer: E) I, II, and III

EST II Physics Practice Mock — 2026 Specifications

This is an original practice examination designed around the current EST II Physics content areas. It is not an official EST examination and does not reproduce official EST questions.